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Brainteaser of the Month

An organization is conducting an election where only one person was nominated, and a member moves "that the election be taken by acclamation." The Chair put the motion to elect by acclamation to a vote (which appears to be about 80% in favor) and declares the individual elected. Is that a proper use of election by "acclamation"?

(difficulty level - 5)

No. The process in Robert's is decribed as follows: "If only one person is nominated and the bylaws do not require that a ballot vote be taken, the chair, after ensuring that, in fact, no members present wish to make further nominations, simply declares that the nominee is elected, thus effecting the election by uanimous consent or "acclamation." RONR (12th ed.) 46:40. 


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